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Foundations of Finance 1

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Submitted By lurichiyo
Words 697
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Topic 1: Financial Markets
1. (a) From the viewpoint of the market maker:
On the 4,000 shares: (4,000*102 1/2) – (4,000*102 1/4) = $1,000
Value of the inventory at the end of the day: (-6,000*102 1/4) = -$613,500
-Inventory is priced as the cost of goods sold, so the -6,000 shares are priced at the bid, at which the market maker bought the shares.
(b) Profit from day 1: (6,000*102 1/2) = $615,000
-6,000 additional shares were sold day 1 at the ask price of 102 1/2; therefore, the profit from day 1 is $615,000
Profit from day 2: (2,000*110 1/2) – (8,000*110 1/4) = -$661,000
Total loss: $45,000 (or total profit: -$45,000)
Value of inventory at the end of Day 2: $0
(c) The market maker’s objective is to make a profit from the bid-ask spread. In order to improve performance over the 2-day period, the market maker could have decreased the amount of shares he short sold on day 1.
Topic 2: Performance Measures
2. (a) Price = PV = F/(1+R)T
PV = $1,000/(1+0.05)5 = $783.53
(b) Maturity = T = log(F/PV)/log(1+R) = log(1000/325.57)/log(1.05) = 23 years
3. Interest rate of the zero-coupon bond: ($1000/$550)1/10 – 1 = 0.0616 = 6.16%
Since the interest rate of the zero-coupon bond is greater than the interest rate of the Chase investment, the zero-coupon bond is the more preferable investment.
To further prove this: FV = PV(1+R)T = $550(1+0.055)10 = $939.48, which is less than $1,000.
4. If annual interest rate is 5%: (a) PV = C*(PV factor) = C*[1-(1/(1+R)T)]/R = ($10,000/0.05)*[1-(1/(1+0.05)6)] = $50,756.92
(b) PV = C/R = $10,000/0.05 = $200,000
-To compare with the present value of the annuity, the perpetuity needs to be discounted
PV/(1+R)T = $200,000/(1+0.05)10 = $122,782.65
At interest rate of 5%, I prefer the perpetuity (b).
If annual interest rate is 10%: (a) PV = C*(PV factor) = ($10,000/0.10)*[1-(1/(1+0.10)6)] = $43,552.61
(b) PV =

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