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Marriott Case Study
1)What is the weighted average cost of capital for Marriott? The weighted average cost of capital for Marriott is 11.64%. .4(cost of equity) + .6(cost of debt)(1- tax) Tax = Income tax/Income before tax = 175.9/398.9 = 44% Cost of debt = .5(.0895) + .4(.0872) + .25(.069) + .5(.011) + .4(.014) +.25(.018) = 11.25% B = 1.1 when d/e = .41 target d/e is .6 so.. B(a) = B(e) / (1 + (1-tax) D/E) = 1.11 / (1+.56(2499/3596)) = .80 B = .8 * (1+.56(5394/3596)) = 1.47 Equity risk Prem = 7.43% (arithmetic average between 1926-1987)
Cost of Equity = Rf + B(Risk Prem) = .0872 + 1.47(.0743) = 19.64%
WACC = .4(.1964) + .6(.1125)(1-.44) = 11.64%
i)What risk free rate and risk premium did you use to estimate the cost of equity? We used the risk free rate of a 10 year government bond (8.72%) to estimate the total risk free rate. We found the risk premium by looking at the arithmetic average between 1926-1987 of the spread between S&P 500 Composite returns and long-term U.S. government bond returns. ii)How did you estimate Marriott’s cost of debt? We estimated the cost of debt by multiplying the fraction of debt at the floating rate for each division by the long term rate (for lodging) plus the premium or the shorter term rates (for the other 2 divisions) plus the premiums. We chose to use 30 year rate for lodging since that probably lasts the longest, 10 year rate for restaurants since they probably last more than a year, and the 1 year rate for contract services which we assumed were the shortest lives.
2)What type of investments would you value using Marriott’s WACC? You would value investments that have similar characteristics as the divisions that were used to create the WACC.

3)If Marriott used a single corporate hurdle rate to value investment opportunities in each of its line of business, what would happen to the company

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