Quiz 1 and 2
* Windows Deployment Services (WDS) is a software platform and technology that allows you to perform which function? A) automated network-based installations based on network-based boot and installation media
* Which two role services does the WDS Role include? A) Transport Server and Deployment Server
* What role does preboot execution environment (PXE) play in WDS? A) It's used to boot to a WDS Server to install a preinstallation environment
What is the name of the Windows Server 2012 installation DVD boot image file?
A) boot.wim
* What function does the System Preparation Utility (Sysprep.exe) perform on a system? A) It removes a system's name and SID
* What type of XML file do you need to create and add information to when performing an unattended operating system installation via WDS? A) answer files
* How do you mount a Windows image using Dism.exe so that you can update it? A) Offline
* Which feature of Windows Server allows you to add driver packages to WDS and then deploy them? A) dynamic driver provisioning
* Windows PE 4.0 is based on which operating system? A) Windows 8
* Where in a system do you configure PXE? A) Bios
* The initial configuration of WDS includes setup of what other server? A) DHCP
* When using sysprep on the master computer, why do you include the /oobe parameter? A) It presents the Windows Welcome Wizard on the next boot
* Where do you place a discover image to ensure proper deployment? A) on bootable media
* To convert a discover image to a bootable ISO image, what non-included component do you need to download and install? A) Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (ADK)
* What Microsoft tool do you use to create and manage Windows setup answer files? A) System Image Manager (SIM)
* Why would you use multicasting for WDS? A) It minimizes network traffic
* Which of the following is the most efficient method of using WDS on a very large network? A) unattended installation using PXE boot
* Which one of the following is absolutely required for using WDS? A) NTFS partition for storing images
* Which of the following describes the WDS boot.wim image file? A) It loads Windows PE 4.0 on the client computer
* Which of the following describes the WDS install.wim image file? A) It installs a standard Windows Server 2012 image to the client computer
* Which of the following describes the WDS resource.wim image file? A) It contains the file resources for all the images in an image group
* Which of the following describes the WDS discover.wim image file?
A)It's used to create a bootable ISO file for WDS deployment
* What kind of updates are released on an as-required basis and are not part of the standard release cycle? A) out-of-band patches
* What critical step you should perform before applying patches or updates? A) Be sure that you have a good backup
* Windows Updates, especially the Automatic Updates feature of Windows Updates, are for what kind of environments? A) Small
* You can configure Windows Server Update Service (WSUS) in one of two modes: Autonomous or Replica. Autonomous provides one type of management and Replica provides another. What are the two management types? A) Distributed and Central
* What is the default port number for WSUS synchronization? A) 8530
* What two ways can you assign computers to groups in WSUS? A) Client-side and Server-side targeting
* WSUS allows you to automatically approve every update, but you shouldn't necessarily do that. What should you do before approving updates to be installed? A) Test the updates on your own systems before approving for rollout
* Which of the following is the proper method of starting the Windows Update service? A) net start wuauserv
* To get the full capability of SCCM, which component must you install on each system on your network? A) the SCCM agent
* What is the definition of a service pack? A) It is a tested, cumulative set of hotfixes, security updates, critical updates, and updates, as well as additional fixes for problems found internally since the release of the product
* If Windows Update fails to retrieve updates, what should you check first? A) Internet Explorer proxy settings
* The number of WSUS servers you need is determined by the number of sites you have and what two other factors? A) speed and load between sites and the number of clients
* WSUS can retrieve updates directly from Microsoft or from what other source? A) another WSUS server on your network
* By default, to which computer group are computers assigned in WSUS? A) All Computers
* Other than the default computer group, how many other groups may a computer be assigned to in WSUS? A) One
* Which of the following best describes a critical update? A) It is high priority but not security related
* What two things should you check if a particular client is having problems downloading and installing updates? A) group policy and the Windows Update log
* Which of the following is the best example of when you need to restart the Windows Update service? A) after you make a configuration change
* If your WSUS servers are having trouble communicating with Microsoft Update, what should you check? A) your company firewalls
* Microsoft classifies its updates into general categories. What is the definition of important updates? A) They offer significant benefits, such as improved security, privacy, and reliability
* Microsoft classifies its updates into general categories. What is the definition of recommended updates? A) They address non-critical problems or help enhance your computing experience
* Microsoft classifies its updates into general categories. What is the definition of optional updates? A) They include updates, drivers, or new software from Microsoft to enhance your computing experience
* Microsoft classifies its updates into general categories. What is the definition of critical updates? A) They provide a broadly released fix for a specific problem addressing a critical, non-security related bug
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Quiz 3 and 4
When you set a service to start automatically with delayed start, how long is the delay?
Two minutes
When creating service accounts, you should follow the rule of what type of rights and permissions? minimal If you install SQL Server and a third-party backup service on the same system, what rule should you follow when creating service accounts?
Use separate accounts for both services
Which of the following tasks does the Event Viewer MMC snap-in allow you to perform?
Save useful event filters as custom views that can be reused
The Event Viewer is essentially what kind of tool? log viewer
What types of tasks can you add to events?
Send an email, start a program, and display a message
Microsoft's new Event Viewer allows you to collect events from remote computers and store them locally. By what name is this collection of events known? event subscription
What function does a computer perform when it's issued the command wecutil qc? event receiving
The Reliability Monitor provides a range of numbers to help you evaluate the reliability of a computer. What is the name of this range of numbers?
Stability Index
What do you need to do if you run the Reliability Monitor but it is blank?
Enable the Reliability Monitor
To examine performance correctly, you must establish a performance baseline. When do you perform this task? during normal usage
What can Task Manager tell you about performance? that you might have a bottleneck
Task Manager is not a definitive performance tool because it gives you what kind of look at computer performance? quick glance
What term describes an instance of a program being executed? process Resource Monitor is a powerful tool for understanding how your system resources are used by what two system consumers? services and processes
Which tool allows you to best monitor resource usage on a virtual machine host and its individual virtual machines?
Hyper-V Resource Metering
When troubleshooting services on your system, why might you want to start up in Safe mode? because the system starts only the core services
To relieve a performance bottleneck or to increase overall performance, what one thing can you do to a system?
Add more RAM
What single performance indicator can tell you if your CPU is over capacity and needs to be replaced?
Processor Time
When reading events in the Event Viewer, you need to recognize the designated levels or classifications. What is the definition for the Critical level?
A failure has occurred from which the application or component that triggered the event cannot automatically recover
When reading events in the Event Viewer, you need to recognize the designated levels or classifications. What is the definition for the Information level?
A change in an application or component has occurred (such as an operation has successfully completed, a resource has been created, or a service started)
When reading events in the Event Viewer, you need to recognize the designated levels or classifications. What is the definition for the Warning level?
An issue has occurred that can impact service or result in a more serious problem if action is not taken
When reading events in the Event Viewer, you need to recognize the designated levels or classifications. What is the definition for the Error level?
A problem has occurred that might impact functionality that is external to the application or component that triggered the event
What are DFS Namespace shared folders referred to in relation to the virtual folders?
Targets
What is the primary difference between domain-based namespace and stand-alone namespace? where the namespaces are stored
The default namespace mode is Windows Server 2008, which supports up to 50,000 folders. How many folders does using non-Windows Server 2008 provide?
5,000
What term is defined as "an ordered list of servers or targets that a client computer receives from a domain controller or namespace server when the user accesses a namespace root or a DFS folder with targets"? referral How do you secure DFS Namespaces?
NTFS and shared folder permissions
What is the primary disadvantage of DFS Replication? additional storage space required
DFS Replication does not replace the need for backups because of what feature of replication?
It replicates deleted, changed, and corrupted files
By default, replication groups use what type of topology to replicate to all members of the group?
Full Mesh
Which replication topology is more efficient than the default replication topology and allows you to set bandwidth, timing, and directionality to your configuration? hub/spoke What compression algorithm does Microsoft use to limit the amount of bandwidth used in DFS Replication? remote differential compression (RDC)
What type of resolution model does DFS Replication use to resolve simultaneous-write conflicts? last-writer wins
What is the default quota size of the Conflict and Deleted folder?
660 MB
What type of special cache folder does each replication folder use to hold files ready to be replicated? staging folder
If you want to save on CPU and disk I/O but consume more network bandwidth for replication, which DFS feature can you disable? remote differential compression (RDC)
When DFS Replication and DFS Namespace are combined into a single service offering, the pair creates what type of file sharing service? fault tolerant
When should you increase the default quota size for the staging folder? when you have multiple large files that change frequently
If one of the replicated folders isn't available, what happens when a user requests a file?
The request is rerouted to another replicated folder
What does the "Last among all targets" option specify?
Users should never be referred to this target unless all other targets are unavailable
What does the "First among targets of equal cost" option specify?
Users should be referred to this target before other targets of equal cost (which usually means other targets in the same site)
What does the "Last among targets of equal cost" option specify?
Users should never be referred to this target if other targets of equal cost are available (which usually means other targets in the same site)
What does the "First among all targets" option specify?
Users should always be referred to this target if the target is available
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Quiz 5
What type of service is the Windows File Server Resource Manager?
Role
What effect does using quotas in File Server Resource Manager have?
It limits the number of gigabytes allocated to a volume or folder
Placing a quota limit on a folder applies that limit to what part of the folder? the entire folder and its subtree
When you create quotas, you are recommended to use what built-in feature to assist you? quota template
What technology did Microsoft develop to combat the storage of storage-using and potentially illegal files on corporate servers?
File Screening
Which screening technique prevents a user from saving defined unauthorized files?
Active
Some exemptions might be required for certain groups to store otherwise restricted file types. What type of exemption can you set up on folders? file screen exception
What feature can you use to simplify the management of file screens? templates What FSRM feature can you use to show the state of file server volumes, quotas, and disallowed files?
Storage Reports
What does the acronym SMTP stand for?
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
What group must you be a member of to enable SMTP?
Administrators
By default, where are storage reports saved?
C:\StorageReports\Scheduled
You can generate several different reports from FSRM. One of them gives you a list of Least Recently Accessed Files. What would be the purpose of that report?
To allow you to archive unused files
When you change a file template and save the changes, you have the option to do which one of the following? apply the template to all derived file screens
What is the purpose of setting soft quotas? to notify users that they have reached the quota limit
If you were asked to set up a shared file area for users that prevented them from saving video files or images of any kind, what would you set up on that shared folder? active file screen with included and excluded file groups
What is the purpose of setting up e-mail notifications for users who violate storage quotas? so that administrators can proactively assist users in resolving the problem
When storage space is at a premium, what should you do to ensure that everyone has enough space?
Set up hard quota limits with e-mail notification
You can use FSRM to create several different types of storage reports that show the state of server volumes and anyone who exceeds the quotas or uses files that aren't allowed. What does a Duplicate Files storage report show? a list of files that are the same size and have the same last modified date
You can use FSRM to create several different types of storage reports that show the state of server volumes and anyone who exceeds the quotas or uses files that aren't allowed. What does a Least Recently Accessed Files storage report show? a list of files that have not been accessed for a specified number of days
What does a Files by File Group storage report show? a list of files sorted by selected file groups defined with FSRM
You can use FSRM to create several different types of storage reports that show the state of server volumes and anyone who exceeds the quotas or uses files that aren't allowed. What does a Quota Usage storage report show? a list of quotas that exceed a specified percentage of the storage limit
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Quiz 8
The Domain Name System (DNS) works much like a phone book to associate URLs (names) with what kinds of numbers?
IP addresses
Which TCP/UDP port does the DNS service use to communicate?
53
What does the acronym FQDN stand for?
Fully Qualified Domain Name
Which one of the following is an example of an FQDN? sales.microsoft.com What type of structure does DNS have? hierarchical distributed
Which of the following is an example of a top-level domain?
.net
Which of the following is an example of a second-level domain? blah.com A specific, individual computer or other network device in a domain is known as what?
Host
What is another term for DNS client?
DNS Resolver
Which type of DNS zone resolves host names to IP addresses?
Forward Lookup Zone
By using the Active Directory-integrated zone, DNS follows what kind of model? multi-master What is one of the primary advantages to using Active Directory to store DNS information? fault tolerance
What is one advantage of subdomains?
They allow you to break up larger domains into smaller, more manageable ones
A stub zone is a zone copy that contains only what type of records? necessary resource entries
What is the primary advantage of a caching-only DNS server?
It speeds DNS queries by building a DNS request cache
Why would you implement a caching-only DNS server on your network? to speed DNS queries and decrease network traffic
What is the first and most important step in installing and deploying DNS in your network? planning the infrastructure and service requirements
What is the major reason behind using a forwarder? to improve the efficiency of name resolution for your computers
By default, zone transfers are disabled. You can choose one of three different zone transfer methods. Which of the following describes the Only to servers listed on the Name Servers tab method? restricts zone transfers to secondary DNS servers as defined with NS resource records
By default, zone transfers are disabled. You can choose one of three different zone transfer methods. Which of the following describes the To any server method? allows a data transfer to any server that asks for a zone transfer (least secure)
By default, zone transfers are disabled. You can choose one of three different zone transfer methods. Which of the following describes the Only to the following servers method? restricts zone transfers to those servers specified in the accompanied list
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Quiz 9
What is another designation for an Alias? canonical name or CNAME
A Start of Authority record specifies what kind of information about a zone? the zone serial number
If you have a server named server1.blah.com, want to use it as your web server, and have requests point to www.blah.com, what kind of DNS record would you create? a CNAME record
Before creating PTR records, what DNS objects must you create? reverse lookup zones
What does Time to Live (TTL) mean in DNS parlance? the length of time a record remains in DNS cache
Round-robin DNS is a term that refers to what kind of distribution mechanism for DNS responses to queries? balanced Which command do you use to verify local DNS settings? ipconfig /all
What does issuing the nslookup command with no parameters do on your system?
It places you into nslookup's interactive mode
Which DNS record contains the serial number for the zone?
SOA Record
Which of the following is an example of an SRV record?
AD server
You can use the dnscmd command to create zones. What other tasks can you perform with it? delete resource records
If an A record maps a host name to an IP address, what does an AAAA record do? maps a host name to a single IPv6 address
Which one of the following is correct for querying a PTR record? nslookup 192.168.1.50
How can you force a system to update its DNS record?
Execute ipconfig /registerdns
If you issue the command nslookup 192.168.1.50 and get no response, but then issue nslookup server1 and receive 192.168.1.50 as a response, what do you know is wrong?
The PTR record doesn't exist
If you have corrected a DNS server problem, such as renamed a system or changed its IP address, but your local system still attempts to connect to the old system, what can you do to obtain the new information from the DNS server quickly?
Execute ipconfig /flushdns
What is the primary advantage to enabling round-robin DNS? load balancing
What is the purpose of a priority number in MX records? for fault tolerance
Select the correct definition for Host (A and AAAA) records. maps a domain/host name to an IP address
DNS servers contain several different types of resource records with which you need to become familiar. Select the correct definition for Name Server (NS) records. identifies a DNS server that is authoritative for a zone
Select the correct definition for Canonical Name (CNAME) records. identifies an alias for a host name
DNS servers contain several different types of resource records with which you need to become familiar. Select the correct definition for Pointer (PTR) records. resolves host names from IP addresses 