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Chm130 Final Review

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Chemistry 1A – Final Review – Multiple Choice

1. 1.00 cm is equal to how many meters? a. 0.01 b. 100. c. 10.0 d. 0.0100

2. 1.00 cm is equal to how many inches? (1 inch = 2.54 cm) a. 0.394 b. 0.10 c. 12 d. 2.54

3. 4.50 ft is how many centimeters? a. 11.4 b. 21.3 c. 454 d. 137

4. The number 0.0048 contains how many significant digits? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

5. Express 0.00382 in scientific notation. a. 3.82 ( 103 b. 3.8 ( 10-3 c. 3.82 ( 10-2 d. 3.82 ( 10-3

6. 42(C is equivalent to ((F = 1.8 ( (C + 32) a. 273 K b. 5.55(F c. 108(F d. 53.3(F

7. 267(F is equivalent to a. 404 K b. 116(C c. 540 K d. 389 K

8. An object has a mass of 62 g and volume of 4.6 mL. Its density is a. 0.074 mL/g b. 285 g/mL c. 7.4 g/mL d. 13 g/mL

9. The mass of a block is 9.43 g and its density is 2.35 g/mL. The block’s volume is: a. 4.01 mL b. 0.249 mL c. 22.2 mL d. 2.49 mL

10. The mass of a piece of copper that has a volume of 9.5 mL is (dcopper = 8.92 g/mL) a. 2.6 g b. 85 g c. 0.94 g d. 1.1 g

11. An empty graduate cylinder has a mass of 54.772 g. When filled with 50.0 mL of an unknown liquid, it has a mass of 101.074 g. The density of the liquid is: a. 0.926 g/mL b. 1.08 g/mL c. 2.02 g/mL d. 1.85 g/mL

12. The conversion factor to change grams to milligrams is a. 100 mg/1 g b. 1 g/100 mg c. 1 g/1000 mg d. 1000 mg/1 g

13. What Fahrenheit temperature is twice the Celsius temperature? a. 64(F b. 320(F c. 200(F d. 546(F

14. A gold alloy has a density of 12.42 g/mL and contains 75.0% gold by mass. The volume of the alloy that can be made from 255 g of pure gold is a. 4.22 ( 103 mL b. 2.37 ( 103 mL c. 27.4 mL d. 20.5 mL

15. A lead cylinder (V = πr2h) has a radius 12.0 cm and length 44.0 cm and a density of 11.4 g/mL. The mass of the cylinder is a. 2.27 ( 105 g b. 1.89 ( 105 g c. 1.78 ( 103 g d. 3.50 ( 105 g

16. The following units can be used for density except a. g/cm3 b. kg/m3 c. g/L d. kg/m2

17. 37.4 cm ( 2.2 cm equals a. 82.28 cm2 b. 82.3 cm2 c. 82 cm2 d. 82.2 cm2

18. The following elements are among the five most abundant by mass in the Earth’s crust, seawater, and atmosphere except a. oxygen b. hydrogen c. silicon d. aluminum

19. Which of the following is a compound? a. lead b. wood c. potassium d. water

20. Which of the following is a mixture? a. water b. chromium c. wood d. sulfur

21. How many atoms are represented in the formula Na2CrO4? a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8

22. Which of the following is a characteristic of metals? a. ductile b. easily shattered c. extremely strong d. dull

23. Which of the following is a characteristic of nonmetals? a. always a gas c. shiny b. poor conductor of electricity d. combines only with metals

24. When a pure substance was analyzed, it was found to contain carbon and chlorine. The substance must be classified as a. an element b. a mixture c. a compound d. both mixture and compound
25. Chromium, fluorine, and magnesium have the symbols a. Ch, F, Ma b. Cr, Fl, Mg c. Cr, F, Mg d. Cr, F, Ma

26. Sodium, carbon, and sulfur have the symbols a. Na, C, S b. So, C, Su c. Na, Ca, Su d. So, Ca, Su

27. Coffee is an example of a. an element c. a homogeneous mixture b. a compound d. a heterogeneous mixture

28. The number of oxygen atoms in Al(CH3COO)3 is a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 6

29. Which of the following is a mixture? a. water b. iron (II) oxide c. sugar solution d. iodine

30. Which is the most compact state of matter? a. solid b. liquid c. gas d. plasma
31. Which is not a characteristic of a solution? a. a homogeneous mixture c. contains two or more substances b. a heterogeneous mixture d. has a variable composition

32. A chemical formula is a combination of a. symbols b. atoms c. elements d. compounds

33. The number of nonmetal atoms in Al2(SO3)3 is a. 5 b. 7 c. 12 d. 14

34. Which of the following is not a physical property? a. boiling point b. physical state c. bleaching action d. color

35. Which of the following is a physical change? a. a piece of sulfur is burned c. a rubber band is stretched b. a firecracker explodes d. a nail rusts

36. Which of the following is a chemical change? a. water evaporates c. rocks are ground into sand b. ice melts d. a penny tarnishes

37. When 9.44 g of calcium are heated in air, 13.22 g of calcium oxide are formed. The percent by mass of oxygen in the compound is a. 28.6% b. 40.0% c. 71.4% d. 13.2%

38. Barium iodide, BaI2, contains 35.1% barium by mass. An 8.50 g sample of barium iodide contains what mass of iodine? a. 5.52 g b. 2.98 g c. 3.51 g d. 6.49 g

39. Mercury (II) sulfide, HgS, contains 86.2% mercury by mass. The mass of HgS that can be made from 30.0 g of mercury is a. 2586 g b. 2.87 g c. 25.9 g d. 34.8 g

40. The changing of liquid water to ice is known as a a. chemical change c. homogeneous change b. heterogeneous change d. physical change

41. Which of the following does not represent a chemical change? a. heating of copper in air c. cooling of red-hot iron b. combustion of gasoline d. digestion of food

42. Heating 30. g of water from 20.(C to 50.(C requires a. 30. cal b. 50. cal c. 3.8 ( 103 J d. 6.3 ( 103 J

43. The specific heat of aluminum is 0.900 J/g(C. How many joules of energy are required to raise the temperature of 20.0 g of Al from 10.0(C to 15.0(C? a. 79 J b. 90. J c. 100. J d. 112 J

44. A 100. g iron ball (specific heat = 0.473 J/g(C) is heated to 125(C and is placed in a calorimeter holding 200. g of water at 25.0(C. What will be the highest temperature reached by the water? a. 43.7(C b. 30.4(C c. 65.3(C d. 35.4(C

45. Which has the highest specific heat? a. ice b. lead c. water d. aluminum

46. When 20.0 g of mercury is heated from 10.0(C to 20.0(C, 27.6 J of energy are absorbed. What is the specific heat of mercury? a. 0.726 J/g(C b. 0.138 J/g(C c. 2.76 J/g(C d. 0.577 J/g(C

47. Changing hydrogen and oxygen into water is a a. physical change c. conservation reaction b. chemical change d. nuclear reaction

48. The concept of a positive charge and a small, “heavy” nucleus surrounded by electrons was the contribution of a. Dalton b. Rutherford c. Thomson d. Chadwick

49. The neutron was discovered in 1932 by a. Dalton b. Rutherford c. Thomson d. Chadwick

50. An atom of atomic number 53 and mass number 127 contains how many neutrons? a. 53 b. 74 c. 127 d. 180

51. How many electrons are in an atom of [pic]? a. 18 b. 20 c. 22 d. 40

52. The number of neutrons in an atom of [pic] is a. 54 b. 56 c. 83 d. 139

53. The name of the isotope containing one proton and two neutrons is a. protium b. tritium c. deuterium d. helium

54. Each atom of a specific element has the same a. number of protons c. number of neutrons b. atomic mass d. number of electrons

55. Which pair of symbols represents isotopes? a. [pic]and [pic] b. [pic]and [pic] c. [pic]and [pic][pic] d. [pic]and [pic]
56. Two naturally occurring isotopes of an element have names and abundances as follows: 54.00 amu (20.00%) and 56.00 amu (80.00%). What is the relative atomic mass of the element? a. 54.20 b. 54.40 c. 54.80 d. 55.60

57. Substance X has 13 protons, 14 neutrons, and 10 electrons. Determine its identity. a. [pic] b. [pic] c. [pic] d. [pic]

58. The mass of a chlorine atom is 5.90 ( 10-23 g. How many atoms are in a 42.0 g sample of chlorine? a. 2.48 ( 10-21 b. 7.12 ( 1023 c. 1.40 ( 10-34 d. 6.02 ( 1023

59. The number of neutrons in an atom of [pic]is a. 47 b. 61 c. 108 d. 155

60. The number of electrons in an atom of [pic] is a. 13 b. 14 c. 27 d. 40

61. The number of protons in an atom of [pic]is a. 30 b. 35 c. 65 d. 95

62. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of [pic]is a. 12 b. 18 c. 24 d. 36

63. 4.0 g of oxygen contains a. 1.5 ( 1023 atoms of oxygen c. 0.50 mol of oxygen b. 4.0 molar masses of oxygen d. 6.022 ( 1023 atoms of oxygen

64. One mole of hydrogen atoms contains a. 2.0 g of hydrogen c. 1 atom of hydrogen b. 6.022 ( 1023 atoms of hydrogen d. 12 g of carbron-12

65. The mass of one atom of magnesium is a. 24.31 g b. 54.94 g c. 12.00 g d. 4.037 ( 10-23 g

66. Avogadro’s number of magnesium atoms a. has a mass of 1.0 g b. has a mass of 12.0 g c. has the same mass as Avogadro’s number of sulfur atoms d. is 1 mol of magnesium atoms

67. Which of the following contains the largest number of moles? a. 1.0 g Li b. 1.0 g Na c. 1.0 g Al d. 1.0 g Ag

68. How many moles of aluminum hydroxide are in one antacid tablet containing 400. mg of Al(OH)3? a. 5.13 ( 10-3 b. 0.400 c. 5.13 d. 9.09 ( 10-3

69. How many grams of Au2S can be obtained from 1.17 mol of Au? a. 182 g b. 249 g c. 364 g d. 499 g

70. The molar mass of Ba(NO3)2 is a. 199.3 g/mol b. 261.3 g/mol c. 247.3 g/mol d. 167.3 g/mol

71. A 16 g sample of O2 a. is 1 mol of O2 c. is 0.50 molecule of O2 b. contains 6.022 ( 1023 molecules of O2 d. is 0.50 molar mass of O2

72. What is the percent composition for a compound formed from 8.15 g of zinc and 2.00 g of oxygen? a. 80.3% Zn, 19.7% O c. 70.3% Zn, 29.7% O b. 80.3% O, 19.7% Zn d. 65.3% Zn, 34.7% O

73. Which of these compounds contains the largest percentage of oxygen? a. SO2 b. SO3 c. N2O3 d. N2O5

74. 2.00 mol of CO2 a. has a mass of 56.0 g c. has a mass of 44.0 g b. contains 1.20 ( 1024 molecules d. contains 6.00 molar masses of CO2

75. In Ag2CO3, the percent by mass of a. C is 43.5% b. Ag is 64.2% c. O is 17.4% d. O is 21.9%

76. The empirical formula of the compound containing 31.0% Ti and 69.0% Cl is a. TiCl b. TiCl2 c. TiCl3 d. TiCl4

77. A compound contains 54.3% C, 5.6% H, and 40.1% Cl. The empirical formula is a. CH3Cl b. C2H5Cl c. C2H4Cl2 d. C4H5Cl

78. A compound contains 40.0% C, 6.7% H, and 53.3% O. The molecular formula is a. C2H3O2 b. C3H8O c. C2HO d. C2H4O2

79. How many chlorine atoms are in 4.0 mol of PCl3? a. 3 b. 7.2 ( 1024 c. 12 d. 2.4 ( 1024
80. What is the mass of 4.53 mol of Na2SO4? a. 142.1 g b. 644 g c. 31.4 g d. 3.19 ( 10-2 g

81. The percent composition of Mg3N2 is a. 72.2% Mg, 27.8% N c. 83.9% Mg, 16.1% N b. 63.4% Mg, 36.6% N d. 74.3% Mg, 25.7% N
82. How many grams of oxygen are contained in 0.500 mol of Na2SO4? a. 16.0 g b. 32.0 g c. 64.0 g d. 71.0 g

83. The empirical formula of a compound is CH. If the mass of the compound is 78.11 g, then the molecular formula is a. C2H2 b. C5H18 c. C6H6 d. C10H10

84. The reaction BaCl2 + (NH4)2SO4 ( BaSO4 + 2 NH4Cl is an example of a. combustion c. single displacement b. decomposition d. double displacement

85. When the equation Al + O2 ( Al2O3 is properly balanced, which of the following terms appears? a. 2 Al b. 2 Al2O3 c. 3 Al d. 2 O2

86. Which equation is incorrectly balanced? a. 2 KNO3 ( 2 KNO2 + O2 c. 2 Na2O2 + 2 H2O ( 4 NaOH + O2 b. H2O2 ( H2O + O2 d. 2 H2O ( 2 H2 + O2

87. The reaction 2 Al + 3 Br2 ( 2 AlBr3 is an example of a. synthesis c. decomposition b. single displacement d. double displacement

88. When the equation PbO2 ( PbO + O2 is balanced, which of the following terms appears? a. PbO2 b. 3 O 2 c. 3 PbO d. O2

89. When the equation Cr2S3 + HCl ( CrCl3 + H2S is balanced, one term in the balanced equation is a. 3 HCl b. CrCl3 c. 3 H2S d. 2 Cr2S3

90. When the equation F2 + H2O ( HF + O2 is balanced, one term in the balanced equation is a. 2 HF b. 3 O2 c. 4 HF d. 4 H2O

91. When the equation NH4OH + H2SO4 ( is completed and balanced, one term in the balanced equation is a. NH4SO4 b. 2 H2O c. H2OH d. 2 (NH4)2SO4

92. When the equation H2 + V2O5 ( V + … is completed and balanced, one term in the balanced equation is a. 2 V2O5 b. 3 H2O c. 2 V d. 8 H2

93. When the equation Al(OH)3 + H2SO4 ( Al2(SO4)3 + H2O is balanced, the sum of the coefficients will be a. 9 b. 11 c. 12 d. 13

94. When the equation H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 ( H2O + Ca3(PO4)2 is balanced, the proper sequence of coefficients is a. 3, 2, 1, 6 b. 2, 3, 6, 1 c. 2, 3, 1, 6 d. 2, 3, 3, 1

95. When the equation Fe2(SO4)3 + Ba(OH)2 ( is completed and balanced, one term in the balanced equation is a. Ba2(SO4)3 b. 2 Fe(OH)2 c. 2 Fe2(SO4)3 d. 2 Fe(OH)3

96. For the reaction 2 H2 + O2 ( 2 H2O + 572.4 kJ which of the following is not true? a. The reaction is exothermic. b. 572.4 kJ of heat are liberated for each mole of water formed. c. 2 mol of hydrogen react with 1 mol of oxygen. d. 572.4 kJ of heat are liberated for each 2 mol of hydrogen reacted.

97. How many moles is 20.0 g of Na2CO3? a. 1.89 mol b. 2.12 ( 103 mol c. 212 mol d. 0.189 mol

98. What is the mass of 0.30 mol of BaSO4? a. 7.0 ( 103 g b. 0.13 g c. 70. g d. 700.20 g

99. How many molecules are in 5.8 g of acetone, C3H6O? a. 0.10 b. 6.0 ( 1022 c. 3.5 ( 1023 d. 6.0 ( 1023

Problems 100 – 106 refer to the reaction 2 C2H4 + 6 O2 ( 4 CO2 + 4 H2O

100. If 6.0 mol of CO2 are produced, how many moles of O2 were reacted? a. 4.0 mol b. 7.5 mol c. 9.0 mol d. 15.0 mol

101. How many moles of O2 are required for the complete reaction of 45 g of C2H4? a. 1.3 ( 102 mol b. 0.64 mol c. 112.5 mol d. 4.8 mol

102. If 18.0 g of CO2 are produced, how many grams of H2O are produced? a. 7.37 g b. 3.68 g c. 9.00 g d. 14.7 g

103. How many moles of CO2 can be produced by the reaction of 5.0 mol of C2H4 and 12.0 mol of O2? a. 4.0 mol b. 5.0 mol c. 8.0 mol d. 10. mol

104. How many moles of CO2 can be produced by the reaction of 0.480 mol of C2H4 and 1.08 mol of O2? a. 0.240 mol b. 0.960 mol c. 0.720 mol d. 0.864 mol

105. How many grams of CO2 can be produced from 2.0 g of C2H4 and 5.0 g of O2? a. 5.5 g b. 4.6 g c. 7.6 g d. 6.3 g

106. If 14.0 g of C2H4 is reacted and the actual yield of H2O is 7.84 g, the percent yield in the reaction is a. 0.56% b. 43.6% c. 87.1% d. 56.0%

Problem 107 – 109 refer to the equation H3PO4 + MgCO3 ( Mg3(PO4)2 + CO2 + H2O

107. The sequence of coefficients for the balanced equation is a. 2, 3, 1, 3, 3 b. 3, 1, 3, 2, 3 c. 2, 2, 1, 2, 3 d. 2, 3, 1, 3, 2

108. If 20.0 g of carbon dioxide is produced, the number of moles of magnesium carbonate used is a. 0.228 mol b. 1.37 mol c. 0.910 mol d. 0.454 mol

109. If 50.0 g of magnesium carbonate reacts completely with H3PO4, the number of grams of carbon dioxide produced is a. 52.2 g b. 26.1 g c. 13.1 g d. 50.0 g

110. When 10.0 g of MgCl2 and 10.0 g of Na2CO3 are reacted in MgCl2 + Na2CO3 ( MgCO3 + 2 NaCl the limiting reactant is a. MgCl2 b. Na2CO3 c. MgCO3 d. NaCl

111. When 50.0 g of copper is reacted with silver nitrate solution in Cu + 2 AgNO3 ( Cu(NO3)2 + 2 Ag 148 g of silver is obtained. What is the percent yield of silver obtained? a. 87.1% b. 84.9% c. 55.2% d. 170.%

112. The concept of electrons existing in specific orbits around the nucleus was the contribution of a. Thomson b. Rutherford c. Bohr d. Schrödinger

113. The correct electron configuration for a fluorine atom is a. 1s22s22p5 b. 1s22s22p63s23p1 c. 1s22s22p43s1 d. 1s22s22p3

114. The correct electron configuration for 48Cd is a. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10 c. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p64d4 b. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d10 d. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s25d10

115. The correct electron configuration of 23V is a. [Ar]4s23d3 b. [Ar]4s24p3 c. [Ar]4s24d3 d. [Kr]4s23d3

116. The number of orbitals in a d sublevel is a. 3 b. 5 d. 7 d. 10

117. The number of electrons in the third principal energy level in an atom having the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p2 a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
118. The total number of orbitals that contain at least one electron in an atom having the configuration 1s22s22p63s23p2 is a. 5 b. 7 c. 8 d. 14

119. Which of these elements has two s and six p electrons in its outer energy level? a. He b. O c. Si d. Ar

120. Which element is not a noble gas? a. Ra b. Xe c. He d. Ar

121. Which element has the largest number of unpaired electrons? a. F b. S c. Cu d. N

122. How many unpaired electrons are in the electron configuration [Ar]4s13d5? a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6

123. Groups 13-18 form the area on the periodic table where the electron sublevels being filled are a. p sublevels b. s and p sublevels c. d sublevels d. f sublevels

124. Which of the following is an incorrect formula? a. NaCl b. K2O c. AlO d. BaO

125. The lanthanide and actinide series of elements are a. all artificially made c. filling in d level electrons b. transition elements d. filling in f level electrons

126. The element having the structure 1s22s22p63s23p2 is in Group a. 2 b. 4 c. 12 d. 14

127. In Group 15, the element having the smallest atomic radius is a. Bi b. P c. As d. N

128. In Group 14, the most metallic element is a. C b. Si c. Ge d. Sn

129. Which group in the periodic table contains the least reactive elements? a. Alkali Metals c. Halogens b. Alkali Earth Metals d. Noble Gases

130. Which group on the periodic table contains the Alkali Metals? a. 1 b. 2 c. 13 d. 14

131. An atom of fluorine is smaller than an atom of oxygen. One possible explanation is that, compared to oxygen, fluorine has a. a larger mass number c. a greater nuclear charge b. a smaller atomic number d. more unpaired electrons

132. If the size of the fluorine atom is compared to the size of the fluoride ion, a. they would both be the same size c. the ion is larger than the atom b. the atom is larger than the atom d. the sizes depend on the reaction

133. Sodium is a very active metal because a. it has a low ionization energy c. it has a relatively small atomic mass b. it has only one outermost electron d. all of the above

134. Which of the following formulas is incorrect? a. Na+ b. S- c. Al3+ d. F-

135. Which of the following molecules does not have a polar covalent bond? a. CH4 b. H2O c. CH3OH d. Cl2

136. Which of the following molecules has a dipole? a. HBr b. CH4 c. H2 d. CO2

137. Which of the following has bonding that is ionic? a. H2 b. MgF2 c. H2O d. CH4

138. Which of the following is a correct Lewis structure?

[pic]

139. Which of the following is an incorrect Lewis structure?

[pic] 140. When a magnesium atom participates in a chemical reaction, it is most likely to a. lose 1 electron b. gain 1 electron c. lose 2 electrons d. gain 2 electrons

141. If X represents an element of Group 13, what is the general formula for its oxide? a. X3O4 b. X3O2 c. XO d. X2O3

142. Which of the following has the same electron configuration as an argon atom? a. Ca2+ b. Cl0 c. Na+ d. K0

143. As the difference in electronegativity between two elements decreases, the tendency for the elements to form a covalent bond a. increases b. decreases c. remains the same c. sometimes increases and sometimes decreases

144. The number of electrons in a triple bond is a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

145. The number of unbonded pairs of electrons in H2O is a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 4

146. Which of the following does not have a noble gas configuration? a. Na b. Sc3+ c. Ar d. O2-

147. Which of these statements is not one of the principal assumptions of the kinetic-molecular theory for an ideal gas? a. All collisions of gaseous molecules are perfectly elastic. b. A mole of any gas occupies 22.4 L at STP. c. Gas molecules have no attraction to one another. d. The average kinetic energy for molecules is the same for all gases at the same temperature.

148. Which of the following is not equal to 1.00 atm? a. 760. cm Hg b. 101.35 kPa c. 760. mm Hg d. 760. torr

149. If the pressure on 45 mL of gas is changed from 600. torr to 800. torr, the new volume will be a. 60. mL b. 34 mL c. 0.045 L d. 22.4 L

150. The volume of a gas is 300. mL at 740. torr and 25°C. If the pressure remains constant and the temperature is raised to 100°C, the new volume will be a. 240. mL b. 1.20 L c. 376 mL d. 75.0 mL

151. The volume of a dry gas is 4.00 L at 15.0°C and 745 torr. What volume will the gas occupy at 40.0°C and 700. torr? a. 4.63 L b. 3.46 L c. 3.92 L d. 4.08 L

152. A sample of Cl2 occupies 8.50 L at 80.0°C and 740. mm Hg. What volume will the Cl2 occupy at STP? a. 10.7 L b. 6.75 L c. 11.3 L d. 6.40 L

153. What volume will 8.00 g O2 occupy at 45.0°C and 2.00 atm? a. 0.462 L b. 104 L c. 9.62 L d. 3.26 L

154. Measured at 65°C and 500. torr, the mass of 3.21 L of a gas is 3.5 g. The molar mass of this gas is a. 21 g/mol b. 46 g/mol c. 24 g/mol d. 130 g/mol

155. Box A contains O2 at a pressure of 200 torr. Box B, which is identical to Box in volume, contains twice as many molecules of CH4 as the molecules of O2 in Box A. The temperatures of the gases are equal. The pressure in Box B is a. 100 torr b. 200 torr c. 400 torr d. 800 torr

156. How many liters of NO2 (at STP) can be produced from 25.0 g of Cu reacting with concentrated nitric acid? Cu + 4 HNO3 ( Cu(NO3)2 + 2 H2O + 2 NO2 a. 4.41 L b. 8.82 L c. 17.6 L d. 44.8 L

157. How many liters of butane (C4H10) are required to produce 2.0 L CO2 at STP? 2 C4H10 + 13 O2 ( 8 CO2 + 10 H2O a. 2.0 L b. 4.0 L c. 0.80 L d. 0.50 L

158. What volume of CO2 (at STP) can be produced when 15.0 g C2H6 and 50.0 g O2 are reacted? 2 C2H6 + 7 O2 ( 4 CO2 + 6 H2O a. 20.0 L b. 22.4 L c. 35.0 L d. 5.6 L

159. How many molecules are present in 0.025 mol of H2 gas? a. 1.5 ( 1022 b. 3.37 ( 1023 c. 2.40 ( 1025 d. 1.50 ( 1022

160. Which of the following is an incorrect equation? a. H2SO4 + 2 NaOH ( Na2SO4 + 2 H2O c. 2 H2O ( 2 H2 + O2 b. C2H6 + O2 ( 2 CO2 + 3 H2 d. Ca + 2 H2O ( Ca(OH)2 + H2

161. How many kilojoules are required to raise 85 g of water at 25°C to a temperature of 100°C? a. 219 kJ b. 27 kJ c. 590 kJ d. 192 kJ

162. The formula for iron (II) sulfate heptahydrate is a. Fe2SO4(7 H2O b. Fe(SO4)3( 6 H2O c. FeSO4(7 H2O d. Fe2(SO4)3(7 H2O

163. The process by which a solid changes directly to a vapor is called a. vaporization b. evaporation c. sublimation d. condensation

164. The molarity of a solution containing 2.5 mol CH3COOH in 400. mL of solution is a. 0.063 M b. 1.0 M c. 0.103 M d. 6.3 M

165. What volume of 0.300 M KCl will contain 15.3 g KCl? a. 1.46 L b. 683 mL c. 61.5 mL d. 4.60 L

166. What mass of BaCl2 will be required to prepare 200. mL of 0.150 M solution? a. 0.750 g b. 156 g c. 6.25 g d. 31.2 g
Problems 167 – 169 refer to the reaction CaCO3 + 2 HCl ( CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

167. What volume of 6.0 M HCl will be needed to react with 0.350 mol of CaCO3? a. 42.0 mL b. 1.17 L c. 117 mL d. 583 mL

168. If 400. mL of 2.0 M HCl reacts with excess CaCO3, the volume of CO2 produced, measured at STP, is a. 18 L b. 5.6 L c. 9.0 L d. 56 L

169. If 5.3 g CaCl2 is produced in the reaction, what is the molarity of the HCl used if 25 mL of it is reacted with excess CaCO3? a. 3.8 M b. 0.19 M c. 0.38 M d. 0.42 M

170. How many milliliters of 6.0 M H2SO4 must you used to prepare 500. mL of 0.20 M sulfuric acid solution? a. 30 b. 17 c. 12 d. 100

171. Which procedure is most likely to decrease the solubility of most solid in liquids? a. stirring c. heating the solution b. breaking up the solid d. increasing the pressure

172. Which of these anions will not form a precipitate with Ag+? a. Cl- b. NO3- c. Br- d. CO32-

173. Which of these salts are considered to be soluble in water? a. BaSO4 b. NH4Cl c. AgI d. PbS

174. When the reaction Al + HCl ( is completed and balanced, this term appears in the balanced equation: a. 3 HCl b. AlCl2 c. 3 H2 d. 4 Al

175. When the reaction H3PO4 + KOH ( is completed and balanced, this term appears in the balanced equation: a. H3PO4 b. 6 H2O c. KPO4 d. 3 KOH

176. When the reaction HCl + Cr2(CO3)3 is completed and balanced, this term appears in the balanced equation: a. Cr2Cl b. 3 HCl c. 3 CO2 d. H2O

177. Which of these is not an acid? a. H3PO4 b. H2S c. H2SO4 d. NH3

178. Which of these is a nonelectrolyte? a. CH3COOH b. MgSO4 c. KMnO4 d. CCl4

179. Which of these is a weak electrolyte? a. NaOH b. NaCl c. CH3COOH d. H2SO4

180. A solution has an H+ cocnentration of 3.4 ( 10-5 M. The pH is a. 4.47 b. 5.53 c. 3.53 d. 5.47

181. A solution with a pH of 5.85 has an H+ concentration of a. 7.71 ( 10-5 M b. 7.1 ( 10-6 M c. 3.8 ( 10-4 M d. 1.4 ( 10-6 M

182. If 16.55 mL of 0.844 M NaOH is required to titrate 10.00 mL of a hydrochloric acid solution, the molarity of the acid solution is a. 0.700 M b. 0.510 M c. 1.40 M d. 0.255 M

183. What volume of 0.462 M NaOH is required to neutralize 20.00 mL of 0.391 M HNO3? a. 23.6 mL b. 16.9 mL c. 9.03 mL d. 11.8 mL

184. 25.00 mL of H2SO4 solution requires 18.92 mL of 0.1024 M NaOH for complete neutralization. The molarity of the acid is a. 0.1550 M b. 0.03875 M c. 0.07750 M d. 0.06765 M

185. What is the pH of a 0.00015 M HCl solution? a. 4.0 b. 2.82 c. 3.82 d. 5.00

186. The chloride ion concentration in 300. mL of 0.10 M AlCl3 is a. 0.30 M b. 0.10 M c. 0.030 M d. 0.90 M

187. The amount of BaSO4 that will precipitate when 100. mL of 0.10 M BaCl2 and 100. mL of 0.10 M Na2SO4 are mixed is a. 0.010 mol b. 0.10 mol c. 23 g d. 230 g

188. The equation CH3COOH + H2O [pic] H3O+ + CH3COO- implies that a. If you start with 1.0 mol CH3COOH, 1.0 mol H3O+ and 1.0 mol CH3COO- will be produced. b. An equilibrium exists between the forward reaction and the reverse reaction. c. At equilibrium, equal molar amounts of all four substances will exist. d. The reaction proceeds all the way to the products, then reverses, going all the way back to the reactants.

189. If the reaction A + B [pic] C + D is initially at equilibrium, and then more A is added, which of the following is not true? a. More collisions of A and B will occur; the rate of the forward reaction will thus be increased. b. The equilibrium will shift towards the right. c. The moles of B will be increased. d. The moles of D will be increased.

190. In the equilibrium reaction N2 + 2 O2 [pic] 2 NO2 as the pressure is increased, the amount of NO2 formed a. increases c. remains the same b. decreases d. increases and decreases irregularly

191. If [pic] loses an alpha particle, the resulting nuclide is a. [pic] b. [pic] c. [pic] d. [pic]

192. If [pic] loses a beta particle, the resulting nuclide is a. [pic] b. [pic] c. [pic] d. [pic]

193. In the equation [pic] + ? ( [pic] + [pic], the missing particle would be a. [pic] b. [pic] c. [pic] d. [pic]

194. In the nuclear equation [pic] + [pic] ( X + [pic] the nuclide X that is formed is a. [pic] b. [pic] c. [pic] d. [pic]

195. If you started with 40 g of the isotope [pic](t1/2 = 3.0 min), how much would be left after 9.0 minutes?

a. 10. g b. 0.0 g c. 15 g d. 5.0 g

Chemistry 1A – Final Review – Free Response

1. In which of the following is the formula correct for the name given? a. copper (II) sulfate, CuSO4 b. ammonium hydroxide, NH4OH c. mercury (I) carbonate, HgCO3 d. phosphorous triiodide, PI3 e. calcium acetate, Ca(CH3COO)2 f. hypochlorous acid, HClO g. dichlorine heptoxide, Cl2O7 h. magnesium iodide, MgI i. sulfurous acid, H2SO3 j. potassium permanganate, KMnO4 k. lead (II) chromate, PbCrO4 l. iron (II) phosphate, FePO4 m. mercury (II) sulfate, HgSO4 n. dinitrogen pentoxide, N2O5 o. sodium hypochlorite, NaClO p. sodium dichromate, Na2Cr2O7 q. cadmium cyanide, Cd(CN)2 r. bismuth (III) oxide, Bi3O2 s. carbonic acid, H2CO3 t. silver oxide, Ag2O u. iron (III) iodide, FeI2 v. tin (II) fluoride, TiF2 w. carbon monoxide, CO x. phosphoric acid, H3PO3 y. sodium bromate, Na2BrO3 z. hydrosulfuric acid, H2S aa. potassium hydroxide, POH ab. sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 ac. zinc sulfate, ZnSO4 ad. sulfur trioxide, SO3 ae. tin (IV) nitrate, Sn(NO3)4 af. iron (II) sulfate, FeSO4 ag. chloric acid, HCl ah. aluminum sulfide, Al2S3 ai. cobalt (II) chloride, CoCl2 aj. acetic acid, CH3COOH ak. zinc oxide, ZnO2 al. tin (IV) nitrite, Sn(NO3)4

2. a. What is an ion? b. The average mass of a calcium atom is 40.08 amu. Why is 40.08 amu also the average mass of a calcium ion, Ca2+?

3. a. What subatomic particles are not in the nucleus? b. What happens to the size of an atom when it becomes an anion? a. What do an ion of Ca and an atom of Ar have in common?

4. The percent composition of compound Z is 63.16% C and 8.77% H. When compound Z burns in air, the only products are carbon dioxide and water. The molar mass of Z is 114. a. What is the molecular formula for compound Z? b. What is the balanced reaction for compound Z burning in air?

5. C6H12O6 ( 2 C2H5OH + 2 CO2 a. If 11.2 g of C2H5OH was produced, what volume of gas was produced (assume conditions are STP)? b. What was the percent yield of the reaction if 12.8 g of C2H5OH was expected? c. What type of reaction took place?

6. When solutions containing 25 g each of lead (II) nitrate and potassium iodide are mixed, a yellow precipitate results. a. What type of reaction occurred? b. What is the name and formula of the solid product? c. If 7.66 g of the yellow solid is collected, what was the percent yield for the reaction?

7. An alkaline earth metal, M, combines with a halide, X. Will the resulting compound be ionic or covalent?

8. Why is the first ionization energy of potassium lower than the first ionization energy of calcium? The second ionization energy of calcium is lower than the second ionization energy of potassium. Why is this so?

9. Chlorine has a very large ionization energy yet it forms a chloride ion relatively easily. Why?

10. a. If you filled up three balloons with equal volumes of hydrogen, argon, and carbon dioxide gas, all at the same temperature and pressure, which balloon would have the greatest mass? The least? Explain. b. If you filled up three balloons with equal masses of nitrogen, oxygen, and neon, all to the same volume at the same temperature, which would have the lowest pressure?

11. What is the molarity of an HCl solution, 150.0 mL of which, when treated with magnesium, liberates 3.50 L of hydrogen gas at STP?

12. Given the equation: FeCl2 + K2Cr2O7 + HCl ( FeCl3 + CrCl2 + KCl + H2O, calculate:

a. moles of potassium chloride produced from 2.0 mol iron (II) chloride b. moles chromium (II) chloride produced from 1.0 mol iron (II) chloride c. moles iron (II) chloride required to react with 0.050 mol potassium dichromate d. milliliters of 0.060 M potassium dichromate required to react with 0.025 mol iron (II) chloride e. milliliters of 6.0 M hydrochloric acid required to react with 15.0 mL of 6.0 M iron (II) chloride

13. What volume of 0.245 M hydrochloric acid will neutralize 50.0 mL of 0.100 M calcium hydroxide?

14. Calculate the pH of solutions having these H+ molar concentrations: a. 1.22 ( 10-6 M b. 0.0200 M c. 3.00 ( 10-4 M d. 0.511 moles per liter

15. Calculate the frequency of radiation with the following properties: a. wavelength = 4.00 m c. wavelength = 9.155 nm b. energy = 4.522 ( 10-15 J d. energy = 3.1 ( 10-13 J

16. Calculate the molar mass of: a. potassium chloride b. nitrous acid c. sulfur dioxide d. iron (III) bromide e. barium hydroxide f. carbon tetrachloride

17. How many moles are in 30.00 g samples of the above compounds?

18. Balance the following: a. H2 + O2 ( H2O b. C + Fe2O3 ( Fe + CO
c. H2SO4 + NaOH ( Na2SO4 + H2O
d. Al2(CO3)3 ( Al2O3 + CO2
e. NH4I + Cl2 ( NH4Cl + I2
f. B5H9 + O2 ( B2O5 + H2O

19. Calculate, using the Ideal Gas Law: a. the volume of 0.510 mol hydrogen gas at 47(C and 1.6 atm b. the number of grams in 16.0 L of CH4 at 27(C and 600. torr pressure

20. At 25(C and 725 torr pressure, what will be the volume of 0.75 mol of Kr?

21. At 27(C and 750 torr pressure, what will be the volume of 2.3 mol of Ne?

22. A copper cube (Cp = 0.385 J/g(C) is heated to 90.5(C. When placed in 200.0 g of water at 25.0(C, the final temperature of the system is found to be 29.4(C. What is the mass of the copper cube?

23. Use the drawing to answer the questions that follow.

a. Calculate the energy of the photon that is released. b. Calculate the frequency of the photon. c. Calculate the wavelength associated with the photon.

24. Consider the molecule CCl4. a. Draw the Lewis structure. b. Use your Lewis structure to draw the appropriate dipoles for each bond. c. Explain how dipoles are formed.

25. Consider a 45.0 g sample of calcium hydroxide. a. What is the formula for calcium hydroxide? b. What is its molar mass? c. How many moles are contained in the 45.0 g sample? d. How many molecules are contained in the 45.0 g sample? e. Determine the percentage of calcium in the sample.

26. Consider a 23.50 g sample of H2SO3. a. Name this compound. b. How many moles of this compound are in the sample? c. If this sample is dissolved in 2.000 L of water, what is the molarity of the resultant solution? d. Write the dissociation equation for H2SO3.

27. Consider the nuclide iodine-131. a. How many protons does this nuclide contain? b. How many nucleons does this nuclide contain? c. Write the equation for the alpha decay of this nuclide. d. If you have 3.00 g of this sample, how much remains after 50.0 days?

28. Determine whether of not the following reactions will work. Give products for those that work.

BaCl2 (aq) + AgNO3 (aq) (

Cu (s) + ZnCl2 (aq) (

CH4 (g) + O2 (g) (

Sr (s) + AgClO3 (aq) (

Al(NO3)3 (aq) + K2SO4 (aq) (

CH3CH2CH2CH3 (s) + O2 (g) (

CaCl2 (aq) + Na2CO3 (aq) (

C6H6 (ℓ) + O2 (g) (

Al2S3 (s) + H2O (ℓ) (

29. Use either Gibbs Free Energy (assume 298 K) or reduction potentials to decide if these reactions work:

[pic]

[pic]

NH4NO3 (s) → N2O (g) + 2 H2O (g)

NO2 (g) + H2O (ℓ) → HNO3 (ℓ) + NO (g)

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...SP2750 – Final Exam Review 1.A group is defined as a collection of individuals _______. a. Whose interactions are not structured by rules & norms b. Who are not capable of influencing each other c. Who are trying to satisfy some personal need through joint association d. With different goals or values | 2.To be effective, group members do NOT need to ________. a. Commit to mutual goals b. Ensure accurate communication among members c. Belong to more than one group d. Participate in spirited dialog | 3.Ethnocentrism _______. a. Moderates cultural conditioning b. Regards one’s own ethnic group, nation, religion, culture, or gender as being more correct than others c. Believes that most other people share their stereotypes about ethnicity d. Is a prejudice directed at people because of their race or ethnic membership | 4.Which statement is true about the theory of the field of group dynamics? a. Developed in North American in the 20th century b. Focuses on advancing knowledge about the nature of group life c. Studies the behavior in groups. d. All of the above e. None of the above | 5.Which are characteristics of an effective group? a. Leadership & participation that are distributed to only a few members b. Accurate & complete communication c. A commitment to goals that reflect members’ interdependence d. Fair & complete review of all alternative positions | 6.Which is not an element of trust? a. Openness b.......

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Acc 3123 Review for Final

...ACC 3123 REVIEW FOR FINAL | CHAPTER | TOPIC | PRACTICE QUESTIONS | CHAPTER 4:ACTIVITY BASED COSTING | * TRADITIONAL ALLOCATION METHOD * ABC ALLOCATION METHOD | E33, E34, E35, E36, E37, P42, P44 | CHAPTER 7:VARIANCE ANALYSIS | * M.Price.V * M.Quantity.V * L.Rate.V * L.Efficiency.V * Controllable.OH.V * OH.Volume.V | E22, E23, E24, E25, E26, E27, E28, E29, E30, E31 | CHAPTER 8:BUDGETING | * SALES BUDGET * PRODUCTION BUDGT * MATERIAL BUDGT * LABOR BUDGT * OH BUDGET * BUDGETED I/S * CASH FLOW BUDGET | E19, E20, E21, E22, E23, E24, E25, E26, E27, E28, E29, E35, E36 | CHAPTER | TOPIC | PRACTICE QUESTIONS | CHAPTER 9:C-V-P ANALYSIS | * BREAK-EVEN * MARGIN OF SAFETY * SOLVING FOR ONEUNKNOWN * MULTIPRODUCT * WHAT-IF ANALYSIS | E11, E12, E14, E15, E16, E17, E18, E19, E20, E22, E23, E24, E25, E26, E31, P38, P41, P42 | CHAPTER 10:DECISION MAKING | * MAKE V/S BUY * PRODUCT MIX UNDERCONSTRAINT * DROP-ADD PRODUCTS * SPECIAL OFFER * PRICING OF PRODUCTS | E12, E13, E15, E17, E18, E19, E20, E21, E22, E23, E24, E25, E26, E27, E28, E29, P33, P38 | CHAPTER 15:CAPITAL BUDGETING | * NPV * IRR * EPVI (PROF INDEX) * PAYBACK PERIOD * ACCT ROR * DEPRECIATION TAX SHIELD | E21, E22, E23, E24, E25, E26, E27, E28, E29, E30, E35, P45, P46, P47, P48 | TOTAL = 16 OR 17 QUESTIONS80% NEW (CH. 7, 8 &15) + 20% OLD (CH. 4, 9, & 10) ALSO GO THROUGH SAMPLE EXAMS + ALL EXCEL PROBLEMS | ADDITIONAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS 1....

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